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Mary in the Gospel of John: Part VII:

The Dialogue Between Jesus and Mary

Fr. J. Patrick Gaffney, SMM

When the wine failed, the mother of Jesus said to him, “they have no wine.” And Jesus said to her, “O Woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come.” His mother said to the servants, “Do whatever he tells you.” (John 2:3-4)

T he most difficult text relating to Our Lady in the New Testament is this short dialogue between Jesus and Mary at the marriage feast of Cana. Mary has already expressed not only the fact that the wine has run short, but also an implicit request for some intervention on the part of her Son: “They have no wine.” On the historical level as envisaged by John, it can be said that whether by miracle or by some ordinary means, Our Lady expects her Son to step in. Two basic problems now face us: what is the meaning of the reply of Jesus, first in its historical setting and secondly, on its deeper, spiritual level? At times it is evident that both levels of meaning overlap to some extent.

The basic setting

Having studied in a previous issue the expression “My hour has not yet come,” the basic meaning of the Jesus-Mary dialogue offers three additional difficulties:

  • Why the strange use of the term ‘woman’ by Jesus for his mother?
  • Why the rather harsh words, “what have you to do with me?”
  • The command of Our Lady to the servants, which results from the dialogue, “Do whatever he tells you.”

There are some scripture scholars who claim that this dialogue was composed by John only to teach a deeper spiritual meaning; it has nothing whatever to do with the historical level of the narrative. Others say that we have only a snippet of the actual dialogue and it is, therefore. just about impossible to understand its meaning. However, such opinions do not really help. They are basically guess-work and they back away from the problem of the discussion between Jesus and Mary on its historical level. According to these authors, it either means nothing at all historically or it is indecipherable because it is so short. We will examine the text, as it is found in the narrative, from both an historical and spiritual level.

Painting: Feast at Cana: Bartolome Esteban Murillo (c: 1675)

Mary in the Gospel of John

The Queen presents a series of articles of Mary in the Gospel of John.

The most difficult text relating to Our Lady in the New Testament is this short dialogue between Jesus and Mary at the marriage feast of Cana.

The strange use of the term ‘Woman’

Can it be said that when Jesus used this expression for his mother, the look in his eyes or the tone of his voice made it known that “0 Woman” was a term of endearment? True, the context of John’s Gospel and of the entire Bible must be the framework in understanding this text. However, it is stretching things beyond the breaking point to include so glibly in the text what is clearly not there: the tone of his voice or the look ln his eyes!

“0 Woman” is not an expression of filial love in John’s Gospel. At the same time, it is by no means a rejection or a put-down of Mary who is constantly called “his mother” by John. The problem is that it is an extraordinarily strange usage for one’s mother. As noted in previous installments, the expression in John is the ordinary way in which Jesus politely addresses women (cf the woman at the well, 4:21; the woman caught in adultery, 8:10; the angels address to Mary Magdalen, 20:13; and in Matthew, the Canaanite woman, 15:28). However, as far as can be known, it is definitely not the manner in which a Jewish son would address his own mother. It is clearly a polite, respectful title; it is difficult to read any more into it on this historical plane. This strange manner with which Jesus addresses his mother – even from The Cross (Jn 19:26) – gives every indication that John is insinuating something more than the basic connotation of respect. There must be also a deeper spiritual meaning which will be examined below. The basic or historical interpretation of “0 Woman” is wound up with the next phrase, “What is it to you and to me?”

The “harsh” words of the dialogue

Joined to the strange use of “Woman” by Jesus to address His mother, is an additional mysterious phrase: “What is it to you and to me?” The verbatim translation of the Greek is the simple: “What to me and to you.” The varied translations into English attest to the difficulty of this sentence. For example:

  • “What have you to do with me?” (Revised Standard Version)
  • “Your concern, mother, is not mine.” (New English Bible)
  • “Why turn to me?” (The Jerusalem Bible)
  • “What concern is that to you and to me?” (New Revised Standard Version)
  • “How does your concern affect me?” (New American Bible)
    and the strangest translation of all:
  • “You must not tell me what to do” (Good News Bible)

From the above translation examples, it can be seen that the words can imply plain disengagement from the embarrassing situation or – as is made quite clear in the rendition of the Good News Bible – downright hostility. Both nuances are found in the Old Testament. The first text in the Scriptures to contain this expression – what to me and to you – is found in Judges 11:12. The Revised Standard Version translates it as “What have you against me?” since the context speaks of a battle between the two engaged in dialogue. In the mouth of Jephthah it is an expression of surprise and of opposition. At other times, the same expression entails nothing more than a refusal to become involved in another one’s difficulty. When Elijah is asked to intervene in a problem of the king of Israel, he responds, according to the RSV translation, “What have I to do with you?” “I’m not getting involved” (2 Kgs 3:13). However, notice that whether it be hostility or just non-involvement which is accentuated, there is always a negation expressed, a lack of agreement, a refusal of sort.

Applied to the Cana episode, there is a basic conclusion that can be deduced on the historical level concerning these words of Jesus:

Jesus is proclaiming a common theme of the Gospels: flesh and blood relationship in itself does not count. His brothers and sisters and mother are those who believe in Him, who carry out the will of God (cf. Mark 3:31—35; Lk 11:27—28). It is “the mother” of Jesus, the womb which bore him and the breasts which fed him who requests this favor. To Mary precisely as “mother,” – considered only from the point of view of flesh/blood relationship Jesus does not respond affirmatively. It is only when Mary reveals herself as the Woman of faith – “do whatever He tells you” – that the favor is granted and water is changed into wine for all called to the wedding feast. Especially in John’s Gospel there is an insistence that Jesus does the will of the Father, human relationship cannot prevail. On the historical level, it is the sovereignty of the Father’s will which is being proclaimed by Jesus in his response to His mother, “0 Woman, what to you and to me.”

Luke’s annunciation narrative (1:26:38) with Mary’s Yes in the name of creation (1:38) bears similarities with this Johannine passage. Mary at the incarnation must reveal herself as a woman of faith – “let it be to me according to your word” – so that the Eternal Word take flesh. At the Cana marriage feast, Mary must reveal herself as a woman of faith – “do whatever He tells you” – so that the “hour” of Jesus may be accomplished, in sign at Cana and in fullness at Calvary.

(To be Continued)

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